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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements:
* Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats.
* Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation.
+ Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly.
+ Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques.
Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities?

A. Deception software
B. Threat Intelligence
C. Centralized logging
D. Sandbox detonation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Deception software is a technology that creates realistic but fake assets (such as servers, applications, data, etc.) that mimic the real environment and lure attackers into interacting with them. By doing so, deception software can help detect advancedpersistent threats (APTs) that may otherwise evade traditional security tools
12. Deception software can also provide valuable insights into the attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) by capturing their actions and behaviors on the decoys13.
Deception software can meet the customer's requirements for security capabilities because:
* It is capable of early detection of APTs by creating attractive targets for them and alerting security teams when they are engaged12.
* It is transparent to users and causes no performance degradation because it does not interfere with legitimate traffic or resources13.
* It allows integration with production and development networks seamlessly because it can create decoys that match the network topology and configuration13.
* It enables the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques because it can record and analyze the attacker's activities on the decoys13.

NEW QUESTION # 25
A developer wants to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users.
Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Verify MD5 hashes.
B. Compress the program with a password.
C. Make the DACL read-only.
D. Implement certificate-based authentication.
E. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
F. Encrypt with 3DES.

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
The keyword "A developer wants to maintain". So it should be something to do with implementation prevention control.

NEW QUESTION # 26
A security analyst is reviewing SIEM events and is uncertain how to handle a particular event. The file is reviewed with the security vendor who is aware that this type of file routinely triggers this alert.
Based on this information, the security analyst acknowledges this alert Which of the following event classifications is MOST likely the reason for this action?

A. False positive
B. False negative
C. Non-automated response
D. True negative

Answer: A

Explanation:
The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms.
A false positive can waste the security analyst's time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:
* https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem
* https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem
* https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following are the primary purposes of digital signatures in verifying code integrity?

A. It verifies the recipient's identity.
B. It provides origin assurance.
C. It integrates with DRMs.
D. It provides increased confidentiality.
E. It ensures the code is free of malware.
F. It verifies integrity.

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
* Option A (Origin assurance): Digital signatures ensure that the code originates from a trusted source.
* Option B (Integrity verification): Digital signatures verify that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed.
* Option C (Confidentiality): Digital signatures do not provide encryption or confidentiality.
* Option D (DRMs): Digital signatures are not specifically related to Digital Rights Management.
* Option E (Recipient verification): Digital signatures validate the sender, not the recipient.
* Option F (Free of malware): While digital signatures verify integrity, they cannot guarantee that the code is free of malware.
References:
* CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic solutions to protect application integrity.
* CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Digital Signatures and Code Signing.

NEW QUESTION # 28
An organization is implementing a new identity and access management architecture with the following objectives:
Supporting MFA against on-premises infrastructure
Improving the user experience by integrating with SaaS applications
Applying risk-based policies based on location
Performing just-in-time provisioning
Which of the following authentication protocols should the organization implement to support these requirements?

A. OTP and 802.1X
B. OAuth and OpenID
C. SAML and RADIUS
D. Kerberos and TACACS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 29
......

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